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Why is India not holding a plebiscite in Kashmir?

By denying the Kashmiris the right to self determination and deploying its 8 lakh army there, isn’t India occupying Kashmir by force?
To draw an analogy, the state of Junagarh in gujarat, a princely state with hindu majority at the time of partition was ruled by a muslim ruler who decided to accede to pakistan but this did not go well with india and a plebiscite was held and Junagarh became a part of india. So a hindu majority state with a muslim ruler enjoys the right of self determination while as kashmir, a muslim majority state was denied that right and occupied on the plea that its Hindu raja acceded to india. If this is okay with you and you are calling kashmir an integral part of India just because that deluded Hari Singh signed a paper few decades back, then i think there is certainy something wrong with your reasoning and rational thought process. Just tell me if Junagarh was given the right to self determination, why has kashmir been deprived of that right for 70 years now.

http://www.un.org/en/ga/search/view_doc.asp?symbol=S%2FRES%2F47(1948)

Primary factors –

Refer to the highlighted parts in the draft of UN resolution which show that –

The UN resolution of 1948 applies to the full “State of Jammu & Kashmir”. As shown in the map below, this includes Gilgit-Baltistan, AZK, Shaksgam Valley, Jammu, Ladakh and Kashmir valley – not just Kashmir (in red area)

For UN plebiscite to be conducted, the first condition is that Government of Pakistan should withdraw it’s forces and non-residents from the area

When the above has been established, then Government of India needs to reduceforces tothe minimum strength, as required to maintain law & order.

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